Regarding Romans 1, it’s you who’ve distorted the original meaning to fit your anti-Gay hermeneutic and theology.
You write, “It clearly says that men abandoned natural relationship with women and committed shameful acts with men.”
To say the word “ἀφέντες” in v27 means “abandoned” is irresponsible on two counts:
First, it’s a second aorist active participle; the frequency and duration of the action cannot be defined. The most that can be said is that the action simply occurred. The KJV does a fair job when it says, “left,” rather than “abandoned.”
Secondly, because “ἀφέντες” is in the active voice, it expresses the subject’s active, willful and purposeful intent in “doing” the action. Since, from my earliest memories, I was never sexually attracted to women. This has been the experience of every Gay man I’ve ever met. It’s logically impossible for us to have left their “use,” as Paul clinically frames it.
Contrary to what you say, Romans 1:21 most certainly speaks of Christians, because they “knew God.”
There’s the theoretical “knowing that God is God:”
Psalm 46:10;
John 1:10, 8:55, 17:25;
1 Corinthians 15:34
Then, there’s the experiential “knowing God:”
John 6:69, 8:3, 10:14, 14:7, 17:3;
Colossians 3:10;
1 Timothy 2:4;
2 Timothy 3:7;
2 Peter 1:2-3, 20
There’s an exact parallel between Romans 1:21 and Hebrews 10:26 and 2 Peter 2:20.
I’m not buying your Biblically errant anti-Gay theology!
--ez duz it © 14 July 2011
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