You appeal to I Timothy 1:10 and 1 Corinthians 6:9 suggesting that God condemns homosexuality and should be used as a pretext to deny same-sex couples access to marry civilly.
The word “homosexual” wasn’t even invented until the late 1800s. There is no correlative in Biblical Greek.
The words “ἀρσενοκοίταις” in I Timothy 1:10 and “ἀρσενοκοῖται” in 1 Corinthians 6:9 occur only once in the Bible with no other variants. Etymologically, they derive from “ἄρρην,” (male) and “κοίτη” (bed).
Also, the terms appear in no other literary references that predate, or are contemporary with, the Greek NT – the claim that they can be defined with the degree of precision that christianists contend is unjustifiable. Despite whom these “man-bedders” actually may have been, the conjecture that the Greek means “homosexuals” is presumptuous and inaccurate.
Since the definite article is missing from these two nouns with no other instances of these words, or their variants, elsewhere in Scripture, only their declension, number and case can be verified. It is impossible to determine the gender of these of these nouns.
Furthermore, since males and females comprise the homosexual population, concluding that a homosexual woman is a “man-bedder” is logically impossible.
Your contention that “ἀρσενοκοίταις,” or “ἀρσενοκοῖται” = “homosexuals” is wrong!
I won’t be silent while christianists distort Scripture to vilify Gay people and deny us civil marriage.
--ez duz it Copyright © 24 June 2011
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